This seems to imply that it is not sins, but covenant breaking that Jesus came to remedy. But my reading of the Bible suggests to me that indeed sinning is the problem, and covenant breaking was bad because covenant was broken by sins that would be sins with or without covenant. Why isn’t covenant breaking just another kind of sin, so that Jesus would have had to come where there were sins whether or not there was covenant.
And what would it mean that Jews kept the Law. Would that mean, Jews never sinning. But, if they were a light to the Gentiles, and the Gentiles subsequent to sinning could become proselytes and acceptable to God by forgiveness without Christ, then why not sinning Jews?