“It seems to me that it is only in Revelation 20:11-15 that we have an unequivocal account of a resurrection of all the dead,”
All the dead of what? Are these reference to be applied universally or within the context of Israel? I think so much of the Scriptures are applied universally(to all mankind) when most of the time they are actually speaking of a limited “all”. After all, prior to Jesus the Gentile was at that time, “separated from Christ, alienated from the commonwealth of Israel and strangers to the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world.” Eph. 2:12
Something to ponder a bit.