“but as he who called you is holy, you also be holy in all your conduct, since it is written, “You shall be holy, for I am holy.” I Peter 1:15-16
“For whoever keeps the whole law but fails in one point has become accountable for all of it.” James 2:10
I beg to differ with you Andrew, the New Testament plainly declares that if we fail in just one point of the law, we are guilty of all of it. That sounds to me like it it interested in “some absolute state of sinlessness.”
Jesus was a Jewish man, born under Jewish law. Men paid for their sins by death, physical and spiritual, since Adam and Eve onward unless sacrifice was made for them.
So again my question, if Jesus was not a completely sinless man, how could he have paid for the sins of all of mankind by His death? when He would of needed to die to pay for His own sins? Where is it written that a sinner can pay the sacrifice for all other sinners? Instead the emphasis all through the OT with the typology there is on an unblemished sacrifice.
And can any mere man on this earth ever manage to live a completely sinless and holy life?