In your post here you make this statement:
“There are certainly texts in the New Testament which lend themselves to the later line of thought. Many of them are in John, which as I noted before does not have the euangelion word group in it (a more significant fact than you might think), but which is the primary source document for those who wish to defend the orthodox Trinitarian position.”
I am curious about the significance of the lack of the euangelion word group in the gospel of John. Can you elaborate a bit more on that?