You are forcing a paradigm on John without any justification whatever. Jewish thought murdered the Son of God, rejected His message and received God’s wrath. In fact, the Jewish people have not such a very good track record with God. The leaders of Jewish thought were the most vile enemies of Christ in the first century. God is said to have blinded the Jewish people so that they could not see the truth. In fact, according to Jewish thought, the gospel is nothing more than a scandal. So much for Jewish thought.
Second, even if you were in the ball park, John’s gospel was written to a universal audience, not a predominantly Jewish one. And his reason for writing was so that men would believe the gospel and have life, not to reinforce Jewish thought around the role of wisdom in creation. That is a violent conclusion if ever I heard one.
Third, you refer to literature that isn’t even recognized as authoritative by the very Jewish community you reference.
You continue to use a secondary translation, once removed from the MT (Hebrew) in order to prop up your view. I find that fascinating. What is profoundly clear to me at this point is that there is nothing unbiased and plain in how you handle these texts. Your conclusions display and clear proclivity to conclude whatever historic orthodoxy as not! At every point where orthodoxy stands, you make sure you are not there, by whatever means necessary.
“When He established the heavens, I was there,
When He inscribed a circle on the face of the deep,
28 When He made firm the skies above,
When the springs of the deep became fixed,
29 When He set for the sea its boundary
So that the water would not transgress His command,
When He marked out the foundations of the earth;
30 Then I was beside Him, as a master workman;
And I was daily His delight,
Rejoicing always before Him,
31 Rejoicing in the world, His earth,
And having my delight in the sons of men.
Proverbs 8:1 says does not wisdom call? Then in v. 4, To you O men, I call. Wisdom calls! Wisdom speaks. This is a literary device, the personification of wisdom and it is not at all uncommon in Jewish literature. But of course you know this! Why then the unnecessary confusion around John 1?
To refer to a hymn about the divine Christ as the “anti-Ceasar” hymn is more than outrageous.
How about Col. 1:13-20? How do you understand this text?