οὗτος occurs 55 times in John’s literature. In Jn.1:1 and 1:2, the antecedent is clearly ὁ λόγος which is in juxtaposed with it. Then again in Jn. 1:6-7, οὗτος is juxtaposed with its antecedent, Ἰωάννης. We haven’t even scratched the surface at this point. To argue that John had occassion to engage in certain syntactical styles does not mean that he always did so. What an absolutely absurb point of view! This is why I won’t waste my time on such argumentation. Not only are the arguments poorly constructed, the lack of understanding of the languages is remarkable. Hence it provides for silliness as far as I am concerned.
how to tell the biblical story in a way that makes a difference