Your rule is imposing Philo on John’s thinking without consideration of how the word is used in NT literature. It is based off an unproven assumption that John was heavily influenced by Philo’s writings. Logos is used 330 times in the NT. It is never used in reference to wisdom. I am searching for justification of your assumption that John must have been heavily influenced by Philo and that in the isolated case of his prologue, he intended to claim that Jesus was wisdom incarnate, not God.
Not at all. The argument is that John is drawing on Jewish Wisdom ideas, which presumably also influenced Philo. I also pointed out before that nowhere else in the New Testament is the logos said to be with God, God, and agent of creation. Your argument is worthless.
Incidentally, the link between word and wisdom is a major part of Richard Bauckham’s defence of the early recognition of Jesus’ divinity.