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The issue, is not whether there’s an impediment but whether there’s a positive reason for taking kosmos as a reference to Israel. I can find no precedent in the LXX.

What would it mean for the devil to offer Jesus all the kingdoms of Israel?

Again, the devil took him to a very high mountain and showed him all the kingdoms of the world (πάσας τὰς βασιλείας τοῦ κόσμου) and their glory. (Matt 4:8)

Similarly, Jesus:

For all the nations of the world (πάντα τὰ ἔθνη τοῦ κόσμου) seek after these things, and your Father knows that you need them. (Luke 12:30)

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