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Good question.

Conventional eschatology says that Jesus’ resurrection anticipates the final resurrection of all the dead at the end of the world, though it has problems squaring that with the belief that Christians go to heaven when they die.

I think it’s right to say that the original Jewish idea had to do with a resurrection of righteous (and perhaps also of unrighteous) Jews at a time of national crisis (cf. Dan. 12:1-3).

My argument is that the New Testament is much closer to the Jewish idea than to our conventional eschatology. So I would say that Jesus’ resurrection anticipates the resurrection of righteous Israel, metaphorically and literally.

But Jewish apocalyptic also developed the belief, as a natural extension of the original idea, that there would be a resurrection of all humanity at the end of the world. (I don’t have the references to hand—this is a bit off the top of my head.)

I’m inclined to think—in answer to your question—that Revelation 20 is the only place in the New Testament where this idea is clearly registered. Perhaps also it is alluded to in the distinction between “those who belong to Christ at his coming” and “the end” in 1 Corinthians 15:23-24).

So at risk of oversimplification: most of the New Testament reflects the late-biblical / pre-apocalyptic belief in the resurrection of righteous Jews when God finally delivers them from their pagan enemies.

Revelation 20 adds to this, almost as an after-thought, the Jewish-apocalyptic belief that all the dead would be judged. It extends resurrection from history to creation.

From our perspective the final (John’s “second”) resurrection is the dominant, even exclusive, one. From the perspective of the first-century Jewish church the (first) resurrection and vindication of the righteous when God delivers his people from their pagan enemies (i.e., Babylon the great) was the overriding concern, for obvious reasons.

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