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Robin Lutjohann | Fri, 09/03/2021 - 20:06 | Permalink

“…we should assume that he shared the presuppositions and outlook of other prophetically-minded or apocalyptically-minded Jews of the time, unless it can clearly be demonstrated otherwise.” 

I know this is not the same topic, but… By that premise, shouldn’t we conclude that he meant “gehenna” to be a spiritual judgment after earthly life (and/or after the resurrection) as most of his contemporaries had begun to use the term for a while — and not, as you suggest, elsewhere, a repristination of the earlier, more literal “valley of Hinnom” reading of Jeremiah?

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