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I’m not saying that the point of the passage is to deny the divinity of Jesus. My point is that the passage assumes the Jewish formulation of god in a way that was endorsed by Jesus (when he quoted the Shema).

The Jewish view of God runs through the synoptic gospels (and virtually the entire NT).  As Andrew said, if Jesus was proposing a new formula for god, then it is hard to believe that the controversy would not have been the focus of the rest of Jesus’ life.

But the controversy surrounding Jesus in the aftermath of his death was not “in what way was he part of the godhead?” but it was “if he was the Messiah, why then was he crucified?”

 

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