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This is what I mean Jaco. You are, sad to say, entirely ignorant of Koine Greek. I could list out numerous scholars who agree with my view as well as Wallace’s view on 1 Jn. 5:20. 

Secondly, I have not invoked a rule of any sort. I have shown that John does not ALWAYS place the antecedent of outos so far away and when he does, it is obvious what the antecedent is. 

The rule is that οὗτός is used as the DP closest to the antecedent and ἐκεῖνός is used when the antecedent is more distant. This is a general rule and does not always hold. But the point is that when you find a place that it does not hold, you must come up with more than theological bias and conjecture as proof that the rule does not hold in that instance.

John uses ἐκεῖνός 62 times. He is quite familiar with how to use both of these words.

This is enough for me. I am sorry you think I am being immature. From my perspective, I have a responsibility to speak the truth, not only about Scripture but about the consequences of your doctrine. You bear herertical teachings. You are spreading them across the internet. The Church has dealt with most forms of “oneness” theology from antiquity and it has uniformly, consistently, and expressly excommunicated all heretics that confess it. You happen to be one of them. I urge you to repent and place your faith in the one triune God who is able to save and provide light out of the darkness in which you presently find yourself.

My prayer is that you find hope and peace in Christ, God of very God, Savior of all mankind. 

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