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So there was not the slightest connection between the death of lamb at the passover, the blood on the lintels and doorposts, and every other lamb subsequently sacrificed as atonement for sin, not to mention the ram sacrificed as a substition for Isaac’s life?

Judgment on the firstborn of Egypt had nothing to do with Pharaoh’s sinful resistance of God’s requirement to “Let my people go” made through Moses, and was purely a demonstration of power, unlike any other judgment which God demonstrated against those who opposed Him?

Why did Israel need to be marked out to spare them from judgment? Could the angel of death not distinguish them from the Egyptians? Trouble with map-reading, maybe? No significance to the lamb and the blood other than a quick meal and a substitute for paint?

When Jesus came, was there no connection between him as the lamb of John 1:29 and his death at the passover - as the passover lamb (1 Cor. 5:7)?

The craziest kind of logic here is to say that Jesus fulfilled the functions of the passover lamb and the lamb as atonement for sin, but they were entirely unconnected, and need to be thought of as two totally different functions.

The reality is that Jesus was fulfilling both functions in one person and one action, his death on the cross, because the two functions were intimately connected, and he provided in himself the meaning of the connection.

 

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