Add new comment

Kent Haley | Thu, 05/01/2014 - 00:10 | Permalink

I still don’t see why the kingdom cannot be “already, but not yet.” Why can’t the beginnings of the kingdom be present in the person of Jesus, and still be manifested in the fall of pagan Rome and the conversion of the nations three centuries later?

Even in the OT, there is a notion of God’s kingdom already present on earth. Genesis begins with God giving man the charge to “take dominion.” The Psalms contain plently of language referencing a present kingdom of God such as: “The Lord reigns…”, (Ps 93 & 97) and “The Lord has established his throne in the heavens, and his kingdom rules over all (Ps 103). So in some since the Jews thought of God’s kingdom as already present, though of course they were looking for a fuller manifestation as indicated in passages such as Daniel 7.

In Mark, Jesus begins by saying “the time is fulfilled  and the kingdom of God is at hand.”  The gospels record Jesus as proclaiming the “gospel of the kingdom.” How is the gospel of the kingdom good news for first century Jew if no aspect of the kingdom arrives until the fourth century?

Kent

The content of this field is kept private and will not be shown publicly.