Here is the question. When Paul says, “for us one God the Father…, and one Lord Jesus Christ” (1 Cor. 8:6), are the terms “God… Lord” between them a reference to the shemaʿ: “Hear, Israel: the Lord our God, the Lord is one” (Deut. 8:6 LXX*)?

It has become a stock argument of those holding to an Early High Christology that Paul has assimilated Jesus into the divine identity by reassigning to him the designation kyrios in the shemaʿ. So, for example, Gordon Fee….